First Responder Practice Quiz
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This exam is designed to help you prepare for your First Responder Final Written Exam.
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Question 1 of 67
1. Question
True or False: The oversight of Emergency Health Services in British Columbia is a provincial responsibility.
Correct
True! The BC Emergency Health Services, a part of the Provincial Health Services Authority, holds the responsibility for overseeing all EMS provided in BC outside of the workplace (which is governed by WorkSafe BC). Paramedic service is provided by the BC Ambulance Service, and partner agencies such as municipal fire departments often assist by providing First Responder duties.
Incorrect
False! The BC Emergency Health Services, a part of the Provincial Health Services Authority, holds the responsibility for overseeing all EMS provided in BC outside of the workplace (which is governed by WorkSafe BC). Paramedic service is provided by the BC Ambulance Service, and partner agencies such as municipal fire departments often assist by providing First Responder duties.
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Question 2 of 67
2. Question
Place the following steps of the Patient Assessment Model in the correct order.
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Scene Assessment
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Primary Assessment
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Transport Decision
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Secondary Assessment
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Treatments & Documentation Completion
Correct
Correct!
Incorrect
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Question 3 of 67
3. Question
Why is it important to determine the Mechanism of Injury?
Correct
Correct! The mechanism of injury allows you to suspect potential injuries your patient may have.
Incorrect
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Question 4 of 67
4. Question
What is the first thing you do when you arrive at a scene?Correct
Correct! You must survey the scene to determine if any hazards are present, to determine what the environment is, to determine the mechanism of injury, to determine how many patients there are, and to determine what additional resources you might need.
Incorrect
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Question 5 of 67
5. Question
Applying Personal Protective Equipment is part of the:
Correct
Correct! PPE should be applied as part of your scene assessment, to protect yourself from hazards.
Incorrect
Incorrect! PPE should be applied as part of your scene assessment, to protect yourself from hazards.
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Question 6 of 67
6. Question
You have completed the Scene Assessment. What is the next action you would take?Correct
Correct! once you have completed your scene assessment you should proceed to the Primary Assessment, beginning by assessing the patient’s LOC using AVPU.
Incorrect
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Question 7 of 67
7. Question
Place these Primary Survey steps in the correct order.-
LOC
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Delicate Spine
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Airway
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Breathing
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Circulation
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Rapid Body Survey
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Skin
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SPO2 / O2
Correct
Correct! LOC DABC RBS Skin O2!
Incorrect
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Question 8 of 67
8. Question
Which technique should you use to open the airway of an unconscious NON trauma patient?
Correct
Correct! The head tilt chin lift should be used.
Incorrect
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Question 9 of 67
9. Question
How do you open the airway of an unconscious patient who fell 20′ onto concrete?
Correct
Correct! This patient should be under spinal precautions, therefore you would use the jaw thrust technique to open the airway.
Incorrect
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Question 10 of 67
10. Question
On inspection the patient’s mouth is full of blood and liquify vomitus. Now what?
Correct
Correct! Fluid should be rapidly suctioned out of the patient’s airway. If the patient’s mouth was full of “chunky” fluid you would need to roll the patient lateral and finger sweep the “chunks” out.
Incorrect
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Question 11 of 67
11. Question
You are providing first response as a single responder, when you are called for a head injury. Upon arrive you find an unconscious 22 year old male who fell 30′ onto concrete. When you examine their airway you find it full of chunky vomit. You are alone with this patient, so your next step should be to:
Correct
Correct! It would be best practice to roll the patient lateral using spinal precautions, and then clear the airway. You are alone with this patient, however, and the airway MUST be cleared immediately.
Incorrect
Incorrect! It would be best practice to roll the patient lateral using spinal precautions, and then clear the airway. You are alone with this patient, however, and the airway MUST be cleared immediately.
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Question 12 of 67
12. Question
How far into the patient’s mouth do you insert the suction catheter?
Correct
Correct! You should only suction the visible oral pharynx. Only suction what you can see.
Incorrect
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Question 13 of 67
13. Question
How long do you suction for?
Correct
Correct! You should suction the patient until the fluid is removed.
Incorrect
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Question 14 of 67
14. Question
A patient requires an oral airway when they are unresponsive to verbal stimuli.
Correct
Correct! If the patient responds to verbal stimuli they most likely still have their own gag reflex.
Incorrect
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Question 15 of 67
15. Question
How do you measure an Oral Airway?
Correct
Correct!
Incorrect
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Question 16 of 67
16. Question
If the Oral Airway measured is too short the tongue can still fall back and obstruct the upper airway.
Correct
Correct!
Incorrect
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Question 17 of 67
17. Question
You have attempted to insert an Oral Airway and the patient gags. What do you do next?
Correct
Correct! This patient still has a gag reflex, but also still has a decreased level of consciousness. This patient’s LOC may deteriorate further, at which time they will lose their gag reflex and their airway protective mechanisms.
Incorrect
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Question 18 of 67
18. Question
Under normal circumstances what triggers your body to breath?
Correct
Correct! The main trigger to breath in a healthy person’s body is when high levels of carbon dioxide are present.
Incorrect
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Question 19 of 67
19. Question
During the primary survey we assess the patient’s breathing for an approximation of the rate and for the quality.
Correct
Correct! It is important to determine if the patient’s breathing rate is effective (not too fast or slow), and if the quality is adequate (is there a sufficient volume of air entering the lungs with each breath).
Incorrect
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Question 20 of 67
20. Question
During the primary assessment your adult patient’s breathing rate is found to be 4/minute. The breaths are shallow and the patient is blueish at the lips. What should you do?
Correct
Correct! This patient needs ventilated with high flow O2. Any patient who is hyp0-ventilating (rate too slow, volume to shallow), or who remains cyanotic despite good oxygenation, should be ventilated.
Incorrect
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Question 21 of 67
21. Question
While bagging the patient you note good chest rise just below the patient’s clavicles, and there is good compliance in the bag when squeezing in the air (no resistance). True or False: These are signs of effective ventilations.
Correct
Correct!
Incorrect
Incorrect.
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Question 22 of 67
22. Question
Sort these ventilatory rates into the correct order for adult patients, and for pediatric patients.
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10-12 breaths per minute (1 breath every 5-6 seconds)
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12-20 breaths per minute (1 breath every 3-5 seconds)
Correct
Correct!
Incorrect
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Question 23 of 67
23. Question
Sort the following choices into the correct order for which pulse we use on the following patients:
- Conscious adult patient
- Unconscious adult patient
- Baby
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Radial Pulse
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Carotid Pulse
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Brachial Pulse
Correct
Correct! The carotid pulse is usually the last pulse a person will lose prior to cardiac arrest. When the adult patient is unconscious we need to know immediately if they require ABC interventions, therefore we use this pulse. When the adult patient is conscious, however, we can use their radial pulse which is usually more accessible, and also tells us more about the status of their circulatory system. These are often difficult pulses to find on a baby, however, so we use the brachial pulse for babies.
Incorrect
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Question 24 of 67
24. Question
True or false: You have assessed for the radial pulses in a conscious person, and they are absent. Your next step should be to check for the carotid pulse.
Correct
True!
Incorrect
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Question 25 of 67
25. Question
The textbook definition of cardiac arrest is unconscious with no breathing and no pulse.
Correct
Correct! Though cardiac arrest patients may initially display short “gasping” breaths called atonal respirations, these will quickly cease. Do not mistake these for organized respirations. If the patient is unconscious with no carotid pulse (adults and children) or brachial pulse (babies) begin CPR.
Incorrect
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Question 26 of 67
26. Question
What is the correct Compression : Ventilation ratio for one rescuer CPR?
Correct
Correct! One Rescuer CPR for all ages is 30:2.
Incorrect
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Question 27 of 67
27. Question
What is the correct Compression : Ventilation Ratio for Two Rescuer CPR on a 6 year child?
Correct
Correct! Two Rescuer CPR on an adult is 30:2, but for all children and infants it is 15:2.
Incorrect
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Question 28 of 67
28. Question
The encircling thumb technique, if it can be correctly performed, is the preferred compression method for two rescuer CPR on an infant.
Correct
Correct!
Incorrect
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Question 29 of 67
29. Question
What patient ages can we use an AED on? Check all that apply.
Correct
Correct!
Incorrect
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Question 30 of 67
30. Question
Who is the best person to operate the AED?
Correct
Correct! The AED should be placed beside the compressor, who can more easily operate it without reaching across the patient.
Incorrect
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Question 31 of 67
31. Question
We should compress the chest of the patient when the AED is analyzing.
Correct
Correct!
Incorrect
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Question 32 of 67
32. Question
The AED you are using on a cardiac arrest call automatically reads and interprets the patient’s cardiac rhythm, then directs you to analyze and push shock if it is indicated. This type of AED is known as:
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 33 of 67
33. Question
After the initial pulse check confirming cardiac arrest, when should you re-assess the pulse?
Correct
Correct! The two most important things for a cardiac arrest patient are high quality CPR and timely defibrillation. Stopping constantly to re-assess the pulse delays these things. Once you have started the resuscitation you should only stop to re-assess the pulse if the patient shows signs of life (i.e. spontaneous breathing, movement, etc).
Incorrect
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Question 34 of 67
34. Question
What do we do immediately after delivering a shock, or immediately after receiving a “no shock advised” from the AED?
Correct
Correct! It is important to reduce any time off the patient’s chest. Once a shock is delivered, or as soon as the AED messages “no shock advised”, you should immediately return to chest compressions. The only time you should re-assess the pulse is if the patient shows signs of life.
Incorrect
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Question 35 of 67
35. Question
What types of injuries are we looking for during the Rapid Body Survey? Check all that may apply.
Correct
Correct! On the Rapid Body Survey we are looking for LIFE THREATENING injuries.
Incorrect
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Question 36 of 67
36. Question
What is the first step in controlling bleeding?
Correct
Correct! Most bleeding can be controlled with firm direct pressure applied over the wound (with sterile gauze if available).
Incorrect
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Question 37 of 67
37. Question
A patient has a significant bleed to his left lower leg. You have applied direct pressure with gauze and bandaged it in place. A few minutes later you see the bandage is now soaking through. What is your next action?
Correct
Correct! You never want to remove the original layer as it may disturb the wound and any clots that have formed. Apply additional gauze on top and more direct pressure.
Incorrect
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Question 38 of 67
38. Question
When do we apply a tourniquet to control bleeding?
Correct
Correct! The best time to apply a tourniquet is if two attempts at direct pressure fail to control the bleed.
Incorrect
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Question 39 of 67
39. Question
The correct definition of shock is inadequate tissue perfusion.
Correct
Correct! Shock, by definition, is inadequate tissue perfusion. This means inadequate blood flow to the cells of the body.
Incorrect
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Question 40 of 67
40. Question
What do we do for a patient showing signs of shock (i.e. pale, cool, clammy skin, elevated heart rate, lower blood pressure, thirst, anxiety)? Tick all that apply.
Correct
Correct! The first thing is to treat the immediate cause of shock if you are able to do so (i.e. controlling life threatening bleeding). You can also aid the patient by keeping them supine (reducing the workload on the circulatory system by removing gravity), keeping them warm and comfortable, and providing nothing to drink. Ultimately the most important thing for the patient in shock is rapid transport to the hospital to correct the underlying cause of shock.
Incorrect
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Question 41 of 67
41. Question
Arrange the following oxygen flow rates in the following order:
- Nasal Cannula
- Simple Face Mask
- Non Rebreather Face Mask
- Bag Valve Mask
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1-4lpm
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10lpm
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10-15lpm
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15lpm
Correct
Correct!
Incorrect
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Question 42 of 67
42. Question
When should you change an O2 tank?
Correct
Correct!
Incorrect
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Question 43 of 67
43. Question
You should always place an unconscious person in the recovery position by the end of the primary assessment except for when which two conditions are present:
Correct
Correct! All unconscious patients should be placed 3/4 because it provides maximal (along with other airway adjuncts as required) airway protection… pulling the tongue forward and providing an avenue for fluid to drain out. Spinal patients are usually best managed supine, however, and the unconscious patient will also need to be supine to be ventilated or to have CPR performed on them.
Incorrect
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Question 44 of 67
44. Question
Place the steps of the Secondary Survey in the correct order.
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History Taking (Interview)
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Vital Signs
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Head to Toe
Correct
Correct!
Incorrect
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Question 45 of 67
45. Question
SAMPLE is used to remember the main questions in your history taking. True or False, SAMPLE stands for:
- Signs and Symptoms
- Allergies
- Medications
- Past Medical History
- Last Oral Intake
- Events leading up to the injury or illness
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 46 of 67
46. Question
OPQRST is used to investigate pain complaints. True or False, OPQRST stands for:
- Onset
- Provocation
- Quality
- Region / Radiate / Relief
- Severity
- Timing
Correct
Correct!
Incorrect
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Question 47 of 67
47. Question
During the head to toe we expose and examine the distal end of each extremity for what three things? Choose the answer that best applies.
Correct
Correct!
Incorrect
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Question 48 of 67
48. Question
True or False: It is a legal requirement that First Responders working within the 911 system fill out a complete patient care report on ALL patients they treat.
Correct
Correct! These reports are used to document the care you provided, ensure it is transferred to the next level of care, to improve your system through the QI process, and they are a legal record of the event.
Incorrect
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Question 49 of 67
49. Question
The First Responder’s PCR would normally go with the paramedics and the patient to the hospital. If this cannot happen for whatever reason how long do you have to get it to the receiving hospital?
Correct
Correct!
Incorrect
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Question 50 of 67
50. Question
What are Battles Signs?
Correct
Correct! Battle Signs are bruises found behind the ears, typically indicative of a basal skull fracture.
Incorrect
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Question 51 of 67
51. Question
What is a flail chest?
Correct
Correct! A flail chest occurs when a segment of the rib cage becomes detached from the rest of the chest wall. This causes the flail segment to move independently from the rib cage, increasing pain, work of breathing and soft tissue damage. This can cause pulmonary contusions, causing accumulations of fluids in the lung tissue. This accumulated fluid interferes with gas exchange, leading to hypoxia. The flail segment must be stabilized.
Incorrect
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Question 52 of 67
52. Question
True or false: To treat a flail segment you need to stabilize the area with a pad folded to the size of the flail segment.
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 53 of 67
53. Question
What is the primary treatment for a patient with major burns?
Correct
Correct!
Incorrect
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Question 54 of 67
54. Question
Define the rule of 9s below:
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Head (9)
Chest & Abdomen (18)
Back (18)
Groin (1)
Left Leg (18)
Right Leg (18)
Left Arm (9)
Right Arm (9)
Correct
Correct! Additionally, burns over 20% of the body surface area are considered critical and major.
Incorrect
Incorrect! Additionally, burns over 20% of the body surface area are considered critical and major.
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Question 55 of 67
55. Question
True or False: Mildly hypothermic patients will shiver, but the shivering will stop as the patient becomes more moderately and severely hypothermic.
Correct
Correct!
Incorrect
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Question 56 of 67
56. Question
True or false: We should attempt to aggressively re-warm severely hypothermic patients?
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 57 of 67
57. Question
If a patient is hypothermic, how long should you check the pulse for before initiating CPR?
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 58 of 67
58. Question
How many shocks can you apply to a hypothermic patient in cardiac arrest (with the AED):
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 59 of 67
59. Question
What is the skin of a heat stroke patient like?
Correct
Correct! Patients who have rapidly progressed to heat stroke have usually sweated out available fluid, so their skin becomes Hot, red and dry as they become more dehydrated and their core temperature rises.
Incorrect
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Question 60 of 67
60. Question
You are called to a roadside construction site in August, where a traffic controller has collapsed. On arrive the controller is found supine, unresponsive, wearing multiple layers of clothing. The airway is clear, the breathing is effective, the radial pulse is weak and rapid, and the skin is hot, red, and dry. There is no history of trauma.
Tick all the steps that you would perform for this patient:
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 61 of 67
61. Question
What is the main treatment for a patient in heat stroke? Tick all that apply.
Correct
Correct! The patient needs to be rapidly removed from the hot environment, the ABCs need managed, and the patient needs rapidly cooled.
Incorrect
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Question 62 of 67
62. Question
The Emergency Medical Assistants Licensing Board is responsible for what items? Select all that apply:
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 63 of 67
63. Question
A patient on scene is suicidal and refusing your assistance. Under what law can the police arrest this person and transport them to the hospital for help?
Correct
Correct!
Incorrect
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Question 64 of 67
64. Question
True or False: The Gunshot and Stab Wound Disclosure Act mandates the reporting of all accidental knife wounds.
Correct
Correct! The act says:
“”stab wound” means
(a) a wound caused by a knife or other sharp or pointed instrument, or
(b) a prescribed wound,
but does not include a wound that is reasonably believed to be self-inflicted or unintentionally inflicted.”Incorrect
Incorrect. The act says:
“”stab wound” means
(a) a wound caused by a knife or other sharp or pointed instrument, or
(b) a prescribed wound,
but does not include a wound that is reasonably believed to be self-inflicted or unintentionally inflicted.” -
Question 65 of 67
65. Question
You are called for an assault, a stabbing with a knife. While this may be a crime scene, it is always your main priority as a first responder to ensure the scene is safe and provide high quality patient care, and leave it to the police to determine if the mechanism of injury involved a criminal act. On this scene the preservation of any evidence would be governed by what Act?
Correct
Correct!
Incorrect
Incorrect! The preservation of evidence on a scene is governed by The Coroner’s Act.
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Question 66 of 67
66. Question
You are on a call with another licensed first responder when you witness inappropriate conduct (inappropriate communication with family members, poor patient care, mistruths being spoken, and an attempt to exceed the first responder’s license level).
True or False: You are obligated under the EMALB Code of Ethics to report this conduct?
Correct
True! The Code of Ethics is in place to protect the public’s interest, and to provide guidance to license holders on expectations of appropriate conduct. Licensed EMA’s are obligated to follow the EMALB Code of Ethics.
Incorrect
False! The Code of Ethics is in place to protect the public’s interest, and to provide guidance to license holders on expectations of appropriate conduct. Licensed EMA’s are obligated to follow the EMALB Code of Ethics.
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Question 67 of 67
67. Question
True or False: When you file your complaint under the Code of Ethics regarding the conduct of the first responder described in the previous question they will be notified by a letter from the Licensing Board. At that point they will have an opportunity to both tell their side of the story, and also seek out third party representation to defend themselves.
Correct
Correct!
Incorrect
Incorrect!