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Home » EMR Practice Quiz

EMR Practice Quiz

EMR Practice Quiz

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This exam is designed to help you prepare for your Emergency Medical Responder Final Written Exam.

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  1. Answered
  2. Review
  1. Question 1 of 72
    1. Question

    The Paramedic Association of Canada and the Canadian Medical Association define four national levels of pre-hospital care. Sort these levels from the lowest to the highest.

    • Emergency Medical Responder
    • Primary Care Paramedic
    • Advanced Care Paramedic
    • Critical Care Paramedic
    Correct

    Correct! The Emergency Medical Responder Course is 80-120 hours and constitutes the first national standard of pre-hospital care. This is followed by Primary Care Paramedic (6 months – 2 years in length), Advanced Care Paramedic (1 – 2 years in length) and Critical Care Paramedic (1 – 2 years in length).

    Incorrect

    Not quite! The Emergency Medical Responder Course is 80-120 hours and constitutes the first national standard of pre-hospital care. This is followed by Primary Care Paramedic (6 months – 2 years in length), Advanced Care Paramedic (1 – 2 years in length) and Critical Care Paramedic (1 – 2 years in length).

  2. Question 2 of 72
    2. Question

    What is Medical Control?

    Correct

    Correct!

    Incorrect

    Incorrect.  Medical Control is the process by which a physician directs the care given by a pre-hospital care provider to a patient.

  3. Question 3 of 72
    3. Question

    A Standing Order allows an EMR to provide certain types of care or treatments without a physician being on scene, or without talking to a physician first.

    Correct

    Correct!

    Incorrect

    Incorrect.

  4. Question 4 of 72
    4. Question

    Place the following steps of the Patient Assessment Model in the correct order.

    • Scene Survey
    • Primary Survey
    • Transport Decision
    • Secondary Survey
    • Treatments & Documentation Completion
    Correct

    Correct!

    Incorrect

  5. Question 5 of 72
    5. Question

    Why is it important to determine the Mechanism of Injury?

    Correct

    Correct!  The mechanism of injury allows you to suspect potential injuries your patient may have.

    Incorrect

  6. Question 6 of 72
    6. Question

    What is the purpose of a Primary Survey?

    Correct

    Correct!

    Incorrect

    Incorrect.  The purpose of the Primary Survey is to find and correct all life threatening Injuries.  The other items listed are part of the Scene Survey.

  7. Question 7 of 72
    7. Question
    What is the first thing you do when you arrive at a scene?
    Correct

    Correct!  You must survey the scene to determine if any hazards are present, to determine what the environment is, to determine the mechanism of injury, to determine how many patients there are, and to determine what additional resources you might need.

    Incorrect

  8. Question 8 of 72
    8. Question
    You have completed the Scene Survey.  What is the next action you would take?
    Correct

    Correct!  once you have completed your scene survey you should proceed to the Primary Survey, beginning by assessing the patient’s LOC using AVPU.

    Incorrect

  9. Question 9 of 72
    9. Question
    Place these Primary Survey steps in the correct order.
    • LOC
    • Delicate Spine
    • Airway
    • Breathing
    • Circulation
    • Rapid Body Survey
    • Skin
    • O2
    Correct

    Correct!  LOC DABC RBS Skin O2!

    Incorrect

  10. Question 10 of 72
    10. Question

    Which technique should you use to open the airway of an unconscious NON trauma patient?

    Correct

    Correct!  The head tilt chin lift should be used.

    Incorrect

  11. Question 11 of 72
    11. Question

    How do you open the airway of an unconscious patient who fell 20′ onto concrete?

    Correct

    Correct!  This patient should be under spinal precautions, therefore you would use the jaw thrust technique to open the airway.

    Incorrect

  12. Question 12 of 72
    12. Question

    On inspection the patient’s mouth is full of blood and liquid vomitus.  Now what?

    Correct

    Correct!   Fluid should be rapidly suctioned out of the patient’s airway.  If the patient’s mouth was full of “chunky” fluid you would need to roll the patient lateral and finger sweep the “chunks” out.

    Incorrect

  13. Question 13 of 72
    13. Question

    How far into the patient’s mouth do you insert the suction catheter?

    Correct

    Correct!  You should only  suction the visible oral pharynx.  Only suction what you can see.

    Incorrect

  14. Question 14 of 72
    14. Question

    How long do you suction for?

    Correct

    Correct!  You should suction the patient until the fluid is removed.

    Incorrect

  15. Question 15 of 72
    15. Question

    A patient requires an oral airway when they are unresponsive to verbal stimuli.

    Correct

    Correct!  If the patient responds to verbal stimuli they most likely still have their own gag reflex.

    Incorrect

  16. Question 16 of 72
    16. Question

    How do you measure an Oral Airway?

    Correct

    Correct!

    Incorrect

  17. Question 17 of 72
    17. Question

    If the Oral Airway measured is too short the tongue can still fall back and obstruct the upper airway.

    Correct

    Correct!

    Incorrect

  18. Question 18 of 72
    18. Question

    You have attempted to insert an Oral Airway and the patient gags.  What do you do next?

    Correct

    Correct!  This patient still has a gag reflex, but also still has a decreased level of consciousness.  This patient’s LOC may deteriorate further, at which time they will lose their gag reflex and their airway protective mechanisms.

    Incorrect

  19. Question 19 of 72
    19. Question

    When measuring a patient for a nasopharyngeal Airway you should measure from the  ________ to the _________.

    Correct

    Correct!

    Incorrect

    Incorrect.

  20. Question 20 of 72
    20. Question

    Under normal circumstances what triggers your body to breath?

    Correct

    Correct!  The main trigger to breath in a health person’s body is when low levels of carbon dioxide are present.

    Incorrect

  21. Question 21 of 72
    21. Question

    During the primary survey we assess the patient’s breathing for rate and quality.

    Correct

    Correct!  It is important to determine if the patient’s breathing rate is effective (not too fast or slow), and if the quality is adequate (is there a sufficient volume of air entering the lungs with each breath).

    Incorrect

  22. Question 22 of 72
    22. Question

    During your primary survey your adult patient’s breathing rate is found to be 4/minute.  The breaths are shallow and the patient is blueish at the lips.  What should you do?

    Correct

    Correct!  This patient needs ventilated with high flow O2.

    Incorrect

  23. Question 23 of 72
    23. Question

    Sort these ventilatory rates into the correct order for adult patients, and for pediatric patients.

    • 10-12 breaths per minute (1 breath every 5-6 seconds)
    • 12-20 breaths per minute (1 breath every 3-5 seconds)
    Correct

    Correct!

    Incorrect

  24. Question 24 of 72
    24. Question

    Sort the following choices into the correct order for which pulse we use on the following patients:

    • Conscious adult patient
    • Unconscious adult patient
    • Baby
    • Radial Pulse
    • Carotid Pulse
    • Brachial Pulse
    Correct

    Correct!  The carotid pulse is usually the last pulse a person will lose prior to cardiac arrest.  When the adult patient is unconscious we need to know immediately if they require ABC interventions, therefore we use this pulse.  When the adult patient is conscious, however, we can use their radial pulse which is usually more accessible, and also tells us more about the status of their circulatory system.  These are often difficult pulses to find on a baby, however, so we use the brachial pulse for babies.

    Incorrect

  25. Question 25 of 72
    25. Question

    The textbook definition of cardiac arrest is unconscious with no breathing and no pulse.

    Correct

    Correct!  Though cardiac arrest patients may initially display short “gasping” breaths called agonal respirations, these will quickly cease.  Do not mistake these for organized respirations.  If the patient is unconscious with no carotid pulse (adults and children) or brachial pulse (babies) begin CPR.

    Incorrect

  26. Question 26 of 72
    26. Question

    What is the correct Compression : Ventilation ratio for one rescuer CPR?

    Correct

    Correct!  One Rescuer CPR for all ages is 30:2.

    Incorrect

  27. Question 27 of 72
    27. Question

    What is the correct Compression : Ventilation Ratio for Two Rescuer CPR on a 6 year child?

    Correct

    Correct!  Two Rescuer CPR on an adult is 30:2, but for all children and infants it is 15:2.

    Incorrect

  28. Question 28 of 72
    28. Question

    The encircling thumb technique, if it can be correctly performed, is the preferred compression method for two rescuer CPR on an infant.

    Correct

    Correct!

    Incorrect

  29. Question 29 of 72
    29. Question

    What patient ages can we use an AED on?  Check all that apply.

    Correct

    Correct!

    Incorrect

  30. Question 30 of 72
    30. Question

    Who is the best person to operate the AED?

    Correct

    Correct!  The AED should be placed beside the compressor, who can more easily operate it without reaching across the patient.

    Incorrect

  31. Question 31 of 72
    31. Question

    We should compress the chest of the patient when the AED is analyzing.

    Correct

    Correct!

    Incorrect

  32. Question 32 of 72
    32. Question

    After the initial pulse check confirming cardiac arrest, when should you re-assess the pulse?

    Correct

    Correct!  The two most important things for a cardiac arrest patient are high quality CPR and timely defibrillation.  Stopping constantly to re-assess the pulse delays these things.  Once you have started the resuscitation you should only stop to re-assess the pulse if the patient shows signs of life (i.e. spontaneous breathing, movement, etc).

    Incorrect

  33. Question 33 of 72
    33. Question

    What do we do immediately after delivering a shock, or immediately after receiving a “no shock advised” from the AED?

    Correct

    Correct!  It is important to reduce any time off the patient’s chest.  Once a shock is delivered, or as soon as the AED messages “no shock advised”, you should immediately return to chest compressions.  The only time you should re-assess the pulse is if the patient shows signs of life.

    Incorrect

  34. Question 34 of 72
    34. Question

    You are transporting a 76 year old male having chest pain, and are alone in the back of the ambulance (your partner is driving) when the patient goes into cardiac arrest. After confirming the patient is unresponsive with no normal respirations and no carotid pulse you should:

    Correct

    Correct! The two most important interventions in a cardiac arrest are chest compressions and rapid defibrillation. This requires both you and your partner in the back of the ambulance. Continuing on with one rescuer CPR while your partner drives delays the application of the AED, and chest compressions in the back of a moving vehicle are never as effective as when you are stationary.

    Incorrect

    Not quite! The two most important interventions in a cardiac arrest are chest compressions and rapid defibrillation. This requires both you and your partner in the back of the ambulance. Continuing on with one rescuer CPR while your partner drives delays the application of the AED, and chest compressions in the back of a moving vehicle are never as effective as when you are stationary.

  35. Question 35 of 72
    35. Question

    What types of injuries are we looking for during the Rapid Body Survey?  Check all that may apply.

    Correct

    Correct!

    Incorrect

  36. Question 36 of 72
    36. Question

    What is the first step in controlling bleeding?

    Correct

    Correct!  Most bleeding can be controlled with firm direct pressure applied over the wound (with sterile gauze if available).

    Incorrect

  37. Question 37 of 72
    37. Question

    A patient has a significant bleed to his left lower leg.  You have applied direct pressure with gauze and bandaged it in place.  A few minutes later you see the bandage is now soaking through.  What is your next action?

    Correct

    Correct!  You never want to remove the original layer as it may disturb the wound and any clots that have formed.  Apply additional gauze on top and more direct pressure.

    Incorrect

  38. Question 38 of 72
    38. Question

    When do we apply a tourniquet to control bleeding?

    Correct

    Correct!  The best time to apply a tourniquet is if two attempts at direct pressure fail to control the bleed.

    Incorrect

  39. Question 39 of 72
    39. Question

    A patient has a severe leg injury, with bone protruding from the thigh.  There is profuse bleeding from the open wound.  Which of the following would be the best initial method of controlling the bleed?

    Correct

    Correct!

    Incorrect

    Incorrect.  Direct pressure should never be applied on a protruding bone end.  Pressure points aren’t used anymore, and tourniquets are rarely the initial form of haemorrhage control.  The best method of controlling the bleed is to apply pressure AROUND the protruding bone with bulky dressings.

  40. Question 40 of 72
    40. Question

    The correct definition of shock is inadequate tissue perfusion.

    Correct

    Correct!  Shock, by definition, is inadequate tissue perfusion.  This means inadequate blood flow to the cells of the body.

    Incorrect

  41. Question 41 of 72
    41. Question

    What do we do for a patient showing signs of shock (i.e. pale, cool, clammy skin, elevated heart rate, lower blood pressure, thirst, anxiety)?  Tick all that apply.

    Correct

    Correct!    The first thing is to treat the immediate cause of shock if you are able to do so (i.e.  controlling life threatening bleeding).  You can also aid the patient by keeping them supine (reducing the workload on the circulatory system by removing gravity), keeping them warm and comfortable, and providing nothing to drink.   Ultimately the most important thing for the patient in shock is rapid transport to the hospital to correct the underlying cause of shock.

    Incorrect

  42. Question 42 of 72
    42. Question

    The term used to describe low levels of oxygen in the cells of the body is:

    Correct

    Correct!

    Incorrect

    Incorrect.  Hypoxia is the term used to describe low levels of oxygen in the cells.

  43. Question 43 of 72
    43. Question

    Arrange the following oxygen flow rates in the following order:

    • Nasal Cannula
    • Simple Face Mask
    • Non Rebreather Face Mask
    • Bag Valve Mask
    • 1-4lpm
    • 10lpm
    • 10-15lpm
    • 15lpm
    Correct

    Correct!

    Incorrect

  44. Question 44 of 72
    44. Question

    When should you change an O2 tank?

    Correct

    Correct!

    Incorrect

  45. Question 45 of 72
    45. Question

    You should always place an unconscious person in the 3/4 prone (HAINES) recovery position by the end of the primary survey except for when which two conditions are present:

    Correct

    Correct!  All unconscious patients should be placed 3/4 because it provides maximal (along with other airway adjuncts as required) airway protection… pulling the tongue forward and providing an avenue for fluid to drain out.  Spinal patients are usually best managed supine, however, and the unconscious patient will also need to be supine to be ventilated or to have CPR performed on them.

    Incorrect

  46. Question 46 of 72
    46. Question

    Which of the following Mechanisms of Injury would place the patient in the Rapid Transport Category?  Select ALL that apply.

    Correct

    Correct!

    Incorrect

    Incorrect.

  47. Question 47 of 72
    47. Question

    Which of the following Primary Survey findings place the patient in the Rapid Transport Category?  Select ALL that apply.

    Correct

    Correct!

    Incorrect

    Incorrect.

  48. Question 48 of 72
    48. Question

    Which of the following injuries place the patient in the Rapid Transport Category?  Select ALL that apply.

    Correct

    Correct!

    Incorrect

    Incorrect.

  49. Question 49 of 72
    49. Question

    Place the steps of the Secondary Survey in the correct order.

    • History Taking (Interview)
    • Vital Signs
    • Head to Toe
    Correct

    Correct!

    Incorrect

  50. Question 50 of 72
    50. Question

    OPQRST is used to investigate pain complaints.  True or False, OPQRST stands for:

    • Onset
    • Provocation
    • Quality
    • Region / Radiate / Relief
    • Severity
    • Timing
    Correct

    Correct!

    Incorrect

  51. Question 51 of 72
    51. Question

    You are called out for an unconscious diabetic.  While taking the patient’s vital signs you note the patient’s eyes flicker open when pain stimuli is applied.  No verbal sounds are made, however the patient’s arm withdraws from the pain stimuli.  This patient’s GCS is:

    Correct

    Correct!  Eyes opening to pain is a 2, no verbal sounds is a 1, and withdrawing from pain is a 4.  This patient’s GCS is 7.

    Incorrect

    Incorrect  Eyes opening to pain is a 2, no verbal sounds is a 1, and withdrawing from pain is a 4.  This patient’s GCS is 7.

  52. Question 52 of 72
    52. Question

    In measuring blood pressure, two different numbers are usually recorded.

    The first number reflects the pressure in the __________ when the heart is contracting.  This is called the __________ blood pressure.

    The second number reflects the pressure in the arteries when the hear is __________ .  This is called the ___________ blood pressure.

    Correct

    Correct!  The contractile phase is called systolic phase of a heart beat.  This is the top number measured when assessing blood pressure.  When the heart relaxes between beats it is called the diastolic phase.  This is the bottom number on a blood pressure reading.

    Incorrect

    Incorrect!  The contractile phase is called systolic phase of a heart beat.  This is the top number measured when assessing blood pressure.  When the heart relaxes between beats it is called the diastolic phase.  This is the bottom number on a blood pressure reading.

  53. Question 53 of 72
    53. Question

    During the head to toe we expose and examine the distal end of each extremity for what three things?  Choose the answer that best applies.

    Correct

    Correct!

    Incorrect

  54. Question 54 of 72
    54. Question

    According to your sample EMR Chest Pain protocol for licensed EMRs in the province of BC:   An EMR could administer nitroglycerin to which of the following patients:

    Correct

    Correct!

    In order for an EMR to administer nitroglycerin to a patient with chest pain the following conditions must be present:

    1) The patient must have chest pain suggestive of cardiac origin.

    2) The patient must have a history of nitroglycerin use.

    3) The EMR must have completed the primary survey, applied O2, initiated transport, completed a history / baseline set of vital signs, and ruled out Viagra/Levitra use in the last 24 hours or Cialis use in the last 48 hours.

    4) The patient’s systolic blood pressure must be > 100mm/Hg.

    Incorrect

    In order for an EMR to administer nitroglycerin to a patient with chest pain the following conditions must be present:

    1) The patient must have chest pain suggestive of cardiac origin.

    2) The patient must have a history of nitroglycerin use.

    3) The EMR must have completed the primary survey, applied O2, initiated transport, completed a history / baseline set of vital signs, and ruled out Viagra/Levitra use in the last 24 hours or Cialis use in the last 48 hours.

    4) The patient’s systolic blood pressure must be > 90mm/Hg.

  55. Question 55 of 72
    55. Question

    Nitroglycerin works by:

    Correct

    Correct!  Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator.  Vasodilation reduces blood flow to the heart (the blood “pools” in the enlarged vessels), which means the heart doesn’t have to work as hard.  The vasodilation also potentially increases blood flow through the narrowed coronary arteries.

    Incorrect

    Incorrect.  Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator.  Vasodilation reduces blood flow to the heart (the blood “pools” in the enlarged vessels), which means the heart doesn’t have to work as hard.  The vasodilation also potentially increases blood flow through the narrowed coronary arteries.

  56. Question 56 of 72
    56. Question

    You have administered 3 doses of Nitro to a chest pain patient, bringing the chest pain complaint from 8/10 down to 4/10 after the 3rd dose.  The patient’s blood pressure, however, is now 85/52.  What can you do now?

    Correct

    Correct, Entonox is an appropriate choice if all of the contraindications have been ruled out.

    Incorrect

    Incorrect!

  57. Question 57 of 72
    57. Question

    Emphysema and Chronic Bronchitis are the most common conditions in the _______ family.

    Correct

    Correct!

    Incorrect

    Incorrect.  Emphysema and Bronchitis are diseases in the COPD family.

  58. Question 58 of 72
    58. Question

    What are Battles Signs?

    Correct

    Correct!  Battle Signs are bruises found behind the ears, typically indicative of a skull fracture.

    Incorrect

  59. Question 59 of 72
    59. Question

    What is a flail chest?

    Correct

    Correct!  A flail chest occurs when a segment of the rib cage becomes detached from the rest of the chest wall.  This causes the flail segment to move independently from the rib cage, increasing pain, work of breathing and soft tissue damage.  This can cause pulmonary contusions, causing accumulations of fluids in the lung tissue.  This accumulated fluid interferes with gas exchange, leading to hypoxia.

    Incorrect

  60. Question 60 of 72
    60. Question

    True or false:  To treat a flail segment you need to stabilize the area with a pad folded to the size of the flail segment.

    Correct

    Incorrect

  61. Question 61 of 72
    61. Question

    You are called for a patient with a lower leg injury.  During the RBS you feel deformity though the clothing at the mid thigh, and the patient tells you there is sharp pain in that area.  List all the actions you could take for this fracture during the Rapid Body Survey (in the Primary Survey).  Check ALL that apply.

    Correct

    Correct.

    Incorrect

    Incorrect.

  62. Question 62 of 72
    62. Question

    In order to properly apply a Sager traction splint the patient should be in the following position:

    Correct

    Correct!

    Incorrect

    Incorrect.

  63. Question 63 of 72
    63. Question

    You are treating a patient with a closed, mid 1/3 femur fracture.  The patient is 5′ 10″ tall and weighs 175 pounds.  How much traction would you apply?

    Correct

    Correct!  Because the fracture is closed and mid third you can apply 10% of the patient’s body weight to a maximum of 15 pounds of traction.

    Incorrect

    Incorrect.  For a fracture that is closed and mid third femur you can apply 10% of the patient’s body weight to a maximum of 15 pounds of traction.  As this patient weighs 175 pounds you would max out at the 15 pounds of traction.

  64. Question 64 of 72
    64. Question

    What is the primary treatment for a patient with major burns?

    Correct

    Correct!

    Incorrect

  65. Question 65 of 72
    65. Question

    Define the rule of 9s below:

    • Head (9)

      Chest & Abdomen (18)

      Back (18)

      Groin (1)

      Left Leg (18)

      Right Leg (18)

      Left Arm (9)

      Right Arm (9)

    Correct

    Correct!

    Incorrect

  66. Question 66 of 72
    66. Question

    True or False:  Mildly hypothermic patients will shiver, but the shivering will stop as the patient becomes more moderately and severely hypothermic.

    Correct

    Correct!

    Incorrect

  67. Question 67 of 72
    67. Question

    What is the skin of a heat stroke patient like?

    Correct

    Correct!  Patients who have rapidly progressed to heat stroke have usually sweated out available fluid, so their skin becomes Hot, red and dry as they become more dehydrated and their core temperature rises.

    Incorrect

  68. Question 68 of 72
    68. Question

    What is the main treatment for a patient in heat stroke?  Tick all that apply.

    Correct

    Correct!  The patient needs to be rapidly removed from the hot environment, the ABCs need managed, and the patient needs rapidly cooled.

    Incorrect

  69. Question 69 of 72
    69. Question

    A patient on scene is suicidal and refusing your assistance.  Under what law can the police arrest this person and transport them to the hospital for help?

    Correct

    Correct!

    Incorrect

  70. Question 70 of 72
    70. Question

    True or False:  It is a legal requirement that Responders working within the 911 system fill out a complete patient care report on ALL patients they treat.

    Correct

    Correct!

    Incorrect

  71. Question 71 of 72
    71. Question

    In the Incident Command System the person in charge of the scene is called the:

    Correct

    Correct!

    Incorrect

    Incorrect.

  72. Question 72 of 72
    72. Question

    You care called code 3 for a 4 year old who is short of breath.  Upon arrival at the residence you are met by the patient’s mother, who leads you into the living room.  The patient is sitting upright on the couch, short of breath, with a loud “seal bark” cough.  You are told the child has been ill for a few days with cold like symptoms and a low grade fever.

    This patient is most likely suffering from:

    Correct

    Correct!  Croup is a viral infection that often starts with a cold and low grade fever, then progresses to shortness of breath and the “seal bark” cough that is often heard.

    Incorrect

    Incorrect.

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PO Box 21195
Maple Ridge, BC
V2X-8R0

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