EMR Practice Quiz
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This exam is designed to help you prepare for your Emergency Medical Responder Final Written Exam. There are 77 questions, presented one at a time.
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Question 1 of 77
1. Question
The Paramedic Association of Canada and the Canadian Medical Association define four national levels of pre-hospital care. Sort these levels from the lowest to the highest.
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Emergency Medical Responder
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Primary Care Paramedic
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Advanced Care Paramedic
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Critical Care Paramedic
Correct
Correct! The Emergency Medical Responder Course is 80-120 hours and constitutes the first national standard of pre-hospital care. This is followed by Primary Care Paramedic (6 months – 2 years in length), Advanced Care Paramedic (1 – 2 years in length) and Critical Care Paramedic (1 – 2 years in length).
Incorrect
Not quite! The Emergency Medical Responder Course is 80-120 hours and constitutes the first national standard of pre-hospital care. This is followed by Primary Care Paramedic (6 months – 2 years in length), Advanced Care Paramedic (1 – 2 years in length) and Critical Care Paramedic (1 – 2 years in length).
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Question 2 of 77
2. Question
What is Medical Control?
Correct
Correct!
Incorrect
Incorrect. Medical Control is the process by which a physician directs the care given by a pre-hospital care provider to a patient.
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Question 3 of 77
3. Question
A Standing Order allows an EMR to provide certain types of care or treatments without a physician being on scene, or without talking to a physician first.
Correct
Correct!
Incorrect
Incorrect.
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Question 4 of 77
4. Question
Place the following steps of the Patient Assessment Model in the correct order.
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Scene Survey
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Primary Survey
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Transport Decision
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Secondary Survey
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Treatments & Documentation Completion
Correct
Correct!
Incorrect
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Question 5 of 77
5. Question
Why is it important to determine the Mechanism of Injury?
Correct
Correct! The mechanism of injury allows you to suspect potential injuries your patient may have.
Incorrect
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Question 6 of 77
6. Question
What is the purpose of a Primary Survey?
Correct
Correct!
Incorrect
Incorrect. The purpose of the Primary Survey is to find and correct all life threatening Injuries. The other items listed are part of the Scene Survey.
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Question 7 of 77
7. Question
What is the first thing you do when you arrive at a scene?Correct
Correct! You must survey the scene to determine if any hazards are present, to determine what the environment is, to determine the mechanism of injury, to determine how many patients there are, and to determine what additional resources you might need.
Incorrect
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Question 8 of 77
8. Question
You have completed the Scene Survey. What is the next action you would take?Correct
Correct! once you have completed your scene survey you should proceed to the Primary Survey, beginning by assessing the patient’s LOC using AVPU.
Incorrect
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Question 9 of 77
9. Question
Place these Primary Survey steps in the correct order.-
LOC
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Delicate Spine
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Airway
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Breathing
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Circulation
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Rapid Body Survey
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Skin
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O2
Correct
Correct! LOC DABC RBS Skin O2!
Incorrect
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Question 10 of 77
10. Question
Which technique should you use to open the airway of an unconscious NON trauma patient?
Correct
Correct! The head tilt chin lift should be used.
Incorrect
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Question 11 of 77
11. Question
How do you open the airway of an unconscious patient who fell 20′ onto concrete?
Correct
Correct! This patient should be under spinal precautions, therefore you would use the jaw thrust technique to open the airway.
Incorrect
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Question 12 of 77
12. Question
On inspection the patient’s mouth is full of blood and liquid vomitus. Now what?
Correct
Correct! Fluid should be rapidly suctioned out of the patient’s airway. If the patient’s mouth was full of “chunky” fluid you would need to roll the patient lateral and finger sweep the “chunks” out.
Incorrect
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Question 13 of 77
13. Question
How far into the patient’s mouth do you insert the suction catheter?
Correct
Correct! You should only suction the visible oral pharynx. Only suction what you can see.
Incorrect
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Question 14 of 77
14. Question
How long do you suction for?
Correct
Correct! You should suction the patient until the fluid is removed.
Incorrect
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Question 15 of 77
15. Question
A patient requires an oral airway when they are unresponsive to both verbal and painful stimuli.
Correct
Correct! If the patient responds to verbal stimuli they most likely still have their own gag reflex.
Incorrect
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Question 16 of 77
16. Question
How do you measure an Oral Airway?
Correct
Correct!
Incorrect
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Question 17 of 77
17. Question
If the Oral Airway measured is too short the tongue can still fall back and obstruct the upper airway.
Correct
Correct!
Incorrect
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Question 18 of 77
18. Question
You have attempted to insert an Oral Airway and the patient gags. What do you do next?
Correct
Correct! This patient still has a gag reflex, but also still has a decreased level of consciousness. This patient’s LOC may deteriorate further, at which time they will lose their gag reflex and their airway protective mechanisms. You may also consider the use of a Nasal Airway.
Incorrect
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Question 19 of 77
19. Question
When measuring a patient for a nasopharyngeal Airway you should measure from the ________ to the _________.
Correct
Correct!
Incorrect
Incorrect.
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Question 20 of 77
20. Question
Under normal circumstances what triggers your body to breath?
Correct
Correct! The main trigger to breath in a health person’s body is when low levels of carbon dioxide are present.
Incorrect
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Question 21 of 77
21. Question
During the primary survey we assess the patient’s breathing for an approximation of rate and quality.
Correct
Correct! It is important to determine if the patient’s breathing rate is effective (not too fast or slow), and if the quality is adequate (is there a sufficient volume of air entering the lungs with each breath).
Incorrect
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Question 22 of 77
22. Question
During your primary survey your adult patient’s breathing rate is found to be 4/minute. The breaths are shallow and the patient is blueish at the lips. What should you do?
Correct
Correct! This patient needs ventilated with high flow O2.
Incorrect
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Question 23 of 77
23. Question
Sort these ventilatory rates into the correct order for adult patients, and for pediatric patients.
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10-12 breaths per minute (1 breath every 5-6 seconds)
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12-20 breaths per minute (1 breath every 3-5 seconds)
Correct
Correct!
Incorrect
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Question 24 of 77
24. Question
Sort the following choices into the correct order for which pulse we use on the following patients:
- Conscious adult patient
- Unconscious adult patient
- Baby
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Radial Pulse
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Carotid Pulse
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Brachial Pulse
Correct
Correct! The carotid pulse is usually the last pulse a person will lose prior to cardiac arrest. When the adult patient is unconscious we need to know immediately if they require ABC interventions, therefore we use this pulse. When the adult patient is conscious, however, we can use their radial pulse which is usually more accessible, and also tells us more about the status of their circulatory system. These are often difficult pulses to find on a baby, however, so we use the brachial pulse for babies.
Incorrect
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Question 25 of 77
25. Question
The textbook definition of cardiac arrest is unconscious with no breathing and no pulse.
Correct
Correct! Though cardiac arrest patients may initially display short “gasping” breaths called agonal respirations, these will quickly cease. Do not mistake these for organized respirations. If the patient is unconscious with no carotid pulse (adults and children) or brachial pulse (babies) begin CPR.
Incorrect
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Question 26 of 77
26. Question
What is the correct Compression : Ventilation ratio for one rescuer CPR?
Correct
Correct! One Rescuer CPR for all ages is 30:2.
Incorrect
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Question 27 of 77
27. Question
What is the correct Compression : Ventilation Ratio for Two Rescuer CPR on a 6 year child?
Correct
Correct! Two Rescuer CPR on an adult is 30:2, but for all children and infants it is 15:2.
Incorrect
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Question 28 of 77
28. Question
The encircling thumb technique, if it can be correctly performed, is the preferred compression method for two rescuer CPR on an infant.
Correct
Correct!
Incorrect
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Question 29 of 77
29. Question
What patient ages can we use an AED on? Check all that apply.
Correct
Correct!
Incorrect
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Question 30 of 77
30. Question
Who is the best person to operate the AED?
Correct
Correct! The AED should be placed beside the compressor, who can more easily operate it without reaching across the patient.
Incorrect
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Question 31 of 77
31. Question
We should compress the chest of the patient when the AED is analyzing.
Correct
Correct!
Incorrect
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Question 32 of 77
32. Question
After the initial pulse check confirming cardiac arrest, when should you re-assess the pulse?
Correct
Correct! The two most important things for a cardiac arrest patient are high quality CPR and timely defibrillation. Stopping constantly to re-assess the pulse delays these things. Once you have started the resuscitation you should only stop to re-assess the pulse if the patient shows signs of life (i.e. spontaneous breathing, movement, etc).
Incorrect
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Question 33 of 77
33. Question
What do we do immediately after delivering a shock, or immediately after receiving a “no shock advised” from the AED?
Correct
Correct! It is important to reduce any time off the patient’s chest. Once a shock is delivered, or as soon as the AED messages “no shock advised”, you should immediately return to chest compressions. The only time you should re-assess the pulse is if the patient shows signs of life.
Incorrect
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Question 34 of 77
34. Question
You are transporting a 76 year old male having chest pain, and are alone in the back of the ambulance (your partner is driving) when the patient goes into cardiac arrest. After confirming the patient is unresponsive with no normal respirations and no carotid pulse you should:
Correct
Correct! The two most important interventions in a cardiac arrest are chest compressions and rapid defibrillation. This requires both you and your partner in the back of the ambulance. Continuing on with one rescuer CPR while your partner drives delays the application of the AED, and chest compressions in the back of a moving vehicle are never as effective as when you are stationary.
Incorrect
Not quite! The two most important interventions in a cardiac arrest are chest compressions and rapid defibrillation. This requires both you and your partner in the back of the ambulance. Continuing on with one rescuer CPR while your partner drives delays the application of the AED, and chest compressions in the back of a moving vehicle are never as effective as when you are stationary.
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Question 35 of 77
35. Question
What types of injuries are we looking for during the Rapid Body Survey? Check all that may apply.
Correct
Correct!
Incorrect
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Question 36 of 77
36. Question
What is the first step in controlling bleeding?
Correct
Correct! Most bleeding can be controlled with firm direct pressure applied over the wound (with sterile gauze if available).
Incorrect
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Question 37 of 77
37. Question
A patient has a significant bleed to his left lower leg. You have applied direct pressure with gauze and bandaged it in place. A few minutes later you see the bandage is now soaking through. What is your next action?
Correct
Correct! You never want to remove the original layer as it may disturb the wound and any clots that have formed. Apply additional gauze on top and more direct pressure.
Incorrect
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Question 38 of 77
38. Question
When do we apply a tourniquet to control bleeding?
Correct
Correct! The best time to apply a tourniquet is if two attempts at direct pressure fail to control the bleed.
Incorrect
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Question 39 of 77
39. Question
A patient has a severe leg injury, with bone protruding from the thigh. There is profuse bleeding from the open wound. Which of the following would be the best initial method of controlling the bleed?
Correct
Correct!
Incorrect
Incorrect. Direct pressure should never be applied on a protruding bone end. Pressure points aren’t used anymore, and tourniquets are rarely the initial form of haemorrhage control. The best method of controlling the bleed is to apply pressure AROUND the protruding bone with bulky dressings.
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Question 40 of 77
40. Question
The correct definition of shock is inadequate tissue perfusion.
Correct
Correct! Shock, by definition, is inadequate tissue perfusion. This means inadequate blood flow to the cells of the body.
Incorrect
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Question 41 of 77
41. Question
What do we do for a patient showing signs of shock (i.e. pale, cool, clammy skin, elevated heart rate, lower blood pressure, thirst, anxiety)? Tick all that apply.
Correct
Correct! The first thing is to treat the immediate cause of shock if you are able to do so (i.e. controlling life threatening bleeding). You can also aid the patient by keeping them supine (reducing the workload on the circulatory system by removing gravity), keeping them warm and comfortable, and providing nothing to drink. Ultimately the most important thing for the patient in shock is rapid transport to the hospital to correct the underlying cause of shock.
Incorrect
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Question 42 of 77
42. Question
The term used to describe low levels of oxygen in the cells of the body is:
Correct
Correct!
Incorrect
Incorrect. Hypoxia is the term used to describe low levels of oxygen in the cells.
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Question 43 of 77
43. Question
Arrange the following oxygen flow rates in the following order:
- Nasal Cannula
- Simple Face Mask
- Non Rebreather Face Mask
- Bag Valve Mask
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1-4lpm
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10lpm
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10-15lpm
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15lpm
Correct
Correct!
Incorrect
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Question 44 of 77
44. Question
When should you change an O2 tank?
Correct
Correct!
Incorrect
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Question 45 of 77
45. Question
You should always place an unconscious person in the 3/4 prone (recovery) position by the end of the primary survey except for when which two conditions are present:
Correct
Correct! All unconscious patients should be placed 3/4 because it provides maximal (along with other airway adjuncts as required) airway protection… pulling the tongue forward and providing an avenue for fluid to drain out. Spinal patients are usually best managed supine, however, and the unconscious patient will also need to be supine to be ventilated or to have CPR performed on them.
Incorrect
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Question 46 of 77
46. Question
Which of the following Mechanisms of Injury would place the patient in the Rapid Transport Category? Select ALL that apply.
Correct
Correct!
Incorrect
Incorrect.
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Question 47 of 77
47. Question
Which of the following Primary Survey findings place the patient in the Rapid Transport Category? Select ALL that apply.
Correct
Correct!
Incorrect
Incorrect.
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Question 48 of 77
48. Question
Which of the following injuries place the patient in the Rapid Transport Category? Select ALL that apply.
Correct
Correct!
Incorrect
Incorrect.
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Question 49 of 77
49. Question
Place the steps of the Secondary Survey in the correct order.
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History Taking (Interview)
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Vital Signs
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Head to Toe
Correct
Correct!
Incorrect
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Question 50 of 77
50. Question
OPQRST is used to investigate pain complaints. True or False, OPQRST stands for:
- Onset
- Provocation
- Quality
- Region / Radiate / Relief
- Severity
- Timing
Correct
Correct!
Incorrect
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Question 51 of 77
51. Question
You are called out for an unconscious diabetic. While taking the patient’s vital signs you note the patient’s eyes flicker open when pain stimuli is applied. No verbal sounds are made, however the patient’s arm withdraws from the pain stimuli. This patient’s GCS is:
Correct
Correct! Eyes opening to pain is a 2, no verbal sounds is a 1, and withdrawing from pain is a 4. This patient’s GCS is 7.
Incorrect
Incorrect Eyes opening to pain is a 2, no verbal sounds is a 1, and withdrawing from pain is a 4. This patient’s GCS is 7.
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Question 52 of 77
52. Question
In measuring blood pressure, two different numbers are usually recorded.
The first number reflects the pressure in the __________ when the heart is contracting. This is called the __________ blood pressure.
The second number reflects the pressure in the arteries when the hear is __________ . This is called the ___________ blood pressure.
Correct
Correct! The contractile phase is called systolic phase of a heart beat. This is the top number measured when assessing blood pressure. When the heart relaxes between beats it is called the diastolic phase. This is the bottom number on a blood pressure reading.
Incorrect
Incorrect! The contractile phase is called systolic phase of a heart beat. This is the top number measured when assessing blood pressure. When the heart relaxes between beats it is called the diastolic phase. This is the bottom number on a blood pressure reading.
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Question 53 of 77
53. Question
During the head to toe we expose and examine the distal end of each extremity for what three things? Choose the answer that best applies.
Correct
Correct!
Incorrect
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Question 54 of 77
54. Question
According to your sample EMR Chest Pain protocol for licensed EMRs in the province of BC: An EMR could administer nitroglycerin to which of the following patients:
Correct
Correct!
In order for an EMR to administer nitroglycerin to a patient with chest pain the following conditions must be present:
1) The patient must have chest pain suggestive of cardiac origin.
2) The patient must have a history of nitroglycerin use.
3) The EMR must have completed the primary survey, applied O2, initiated transport, completed a history / baseline set of vital signs, and ruled out Viagra/Levitra use in the last 24 hours or Cialis use in the last 48 hours.
4) The patient’s systolic blood pressure must be > 100mm/Hg.
Incorrect
In order for an EMR to administer nitroglycerin to a patient with chest pain the following conditions must be present:
1) The patient must have chest pain suggestive of cardiac origin.
2) The patient must have a history of nitroglycerin use.
3) The EMR must have completed the primary survey, applied O2, initiated transport, completed a history / baseline set of vital signs, and ruled out Viagra/Levitra use in the last 24 hours or Cialis use in the last 48 hours.
4) The patient’s systolic blood pressure must be > 90mm/Hg.
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Question 55 of 77
55. Question
Nitroglycerin works by:
Correct
Correct! Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator. Vasodilation reduces blood flow to the heart (the blood “pools” in the enlarged vessels), which means the heart doesn’t have to work as hard. The vasodilation also potentially increases blood flow through the narrowed coronary arteries.
Incorrect
Incorrect. Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator. Vasodilation reduces blood flow to the heart (the blood “pools” in the enlarged vessels), which means the heart doesn’t have to work as hard. The vasodilation also potentially increases blood flow through the narrowed coronary arteries.
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Question 56 of 77
56. Question
You have administered 3 doses of Nitro to a chest pain patient, bringing the chest pain complaint from 8/10 down to 4/10 after the 3rd dose. The patient’s blood pressure, however, is now 85/52. What can you do now?
Correct
Correct, Entonox is an appropriate choice if all of the contraindications have been ruled out.
Incorrect
Incorrect!
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Question 57 of 77
57. Question
Emphysema and Chronic Bronchitis are the most common conditions in the _______ family.
Correct
Correct!
Incorrect
Incorrect. Emphysema and Bronchitis are diseases in the COPD family.
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Question 58 of 77
58. Question
What are Battles Signs?
Correct
Correct! Battle Signs are bruises found behind the ears, typically indicative of a skull fracture.
Incorrect
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Question 59 of 77
59. Question
What is a flail chest?
Correct
Correct! A flail chest occurs when a segment of the rib cage becomes detached from the rest of the chest wall. This causes the flail segment to move independently from the rib cage, increasing pain, work of breathing and soft tissue damage. This can cause pulmonary contusions, causing accumulations of fluids in the lung tissue. This accumulated fluid interferes with gas exchange, leading to hypoxia.
Incorrect
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Question 60 of 77
60. Question
True or false: To treat a flail segment you need to stabilize the area with a pad folded to the size of the flail segment.
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 61 of 77
61. Question
You are called for a patient with a lower leg injury. During the RBS you feel deformity though the clothing at the mid thigh, and the patient tells you there is sharp pain in that area. List all the actions you could take for this fracture during the Rapid Body Survey (in the Primary Survey). Check ALL that apply.
Correct
Correct.
Incorrect
Incorrect.
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Question 62 of 77
62. Question
In order to properly apply a Sager traction splint the patient should be in the following position:
Correct
Correct!
Incorrect
Incorrect.
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Question 63 of 77
63. Question
You are treating a patient with a closed, mid 1/3 femur fracture. The patient is 5′ 10″ tall and weighs 175 pounds. How much traction would you apply?
Correct
Correct! Because the fracture is closed and mid third you can apply 10% of the patient’s body weight to a maximum of 15 pounds of traction.
Incorrect
Incorrect. For a fracture that is closed and mid third femur you can apply 10% of the patient’s body weight to a maximum of 15 pounds of traction. As this patient weighs 175 pounds you would max out at the 15 pounds of traction.
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Question 64 of 77
64. Question
What is the primary treatment for a patient with major burns?
Correct
Correct!
Incorrect
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Question 65 of 77
65. Question
Define the rule of 9s below:
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Head (9)
Chest & Abdomen (18)
Back (18)
Groin (1)
Left Leg (18)
Right Leg (18)
Left Arm (9)
Right Arm (9)
Correct
Correct!
Incorrect
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Question 66 of 77
66. Question
True or False: Mildly hypothermic patients will shiver, but the shivering will stop as the patient becomes more moderately and severely hypothermic.
Correct
Correct!
Incorrect
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Question 67 of 77
67. Question
What is the skin of a heat stroke patient like?
Correct
Correct! Patients who have rapidly progressed to heat stroke have usually sweated out available fluid, so their skin becomes Hot, red and dry as they become more dehydrated and their core temperature rises.
Incorrect
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Question 68 of 77
68. Question
What is the main treatment for a patient in heat stroke? Tick all that apply.
Correct
Correct! The patient needs to be rapidly removed from the hot environment, the ABCs need managed, and the patient needs rapidly cooled.
Incorrect
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Question 69 of 77
69. Question
A patient on scene is suicidal and refusing your assistance. Under what law can the police arrest this person and transport them to the hospital for help?
Correct
Correct!
Incorrect
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Question 70 of 77
70. Question
True or False: It is a legal requirement that Responders working within the 911 system fill out a complete patient care report on ALL patients they treat.
Correct
Correct!
Incorrect
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Question 71 of 77
71. Question
In the Incident Command System the person in charge of the scene is called the:
Correct
Correct!
Incorrect
Incorrect.
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Question 72 of 77
72. Question
You care called code 3 for a 4 year old who is short of breath. Upon arrival at the residence you are met by the patient’s mother, who leads you into the living room. The patient is sitting upright on the couch, short of breath, with a loud “seal bark” cough. You are told the child has been ill for a few days with cold like symptoms and a low grade fever.
This patient is most likely suffering from:
Correct
Correct! Croup is a viral infection that often starts with a cold and low grade fever, then progresses to shortness of breath and the “seal bark” cough that is often heard.
Incorrect
Incorrect.
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Question 73 of 77
73. Question
You are called for a patient found unconscious in a private residence. On exam the patient is not responsive to verbal or painful stimuli, has a clear airway, is breathing at a rate of 6 shallow breaths per minute, is cyanotic, and has pinpoint pupils.
You suspect that the patient is suffering from an overdose of:
Correct
Correct, this is possibly an opiate overdose. Depression of the central nervous system results in decreased LOC, decreased respirations and pinpoint pupils. Cyanosis is present as a result of hypoxia.
Incorrect
Incorrect, this is possibly an opiate overdose. Depression of the central nervous system results in decreased LOC, decreased respirations and pinpoint pupils. Cyanosis is present as a result of hypoxia.
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Question 74 of 77
74. Question
Which of the following cardiac rhythms are shockable (select all that apply):
Correct
Correct!
Incorrect
Incorrect.
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Question 75 of 77
75. Question
When assessing a possible stroke it is important to use the FAST exam, which consists of:
Face: Does the patient have any facial droop or paralysis in their face.
Arm: Does the patient have any weakness or paralysis on one side of their body (assessed by having the patient squeeze both hands or by having them close their eyes and hold both arms out for 10 seconds).
Speech: Is there any slurred or confused speech.
Time: When did the symptoms start?Correct
Correct!
Incorrect
Incorrect.
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Question 76 of 77
76. Question
You are transporting a stable patient between hospitals for a medical procedure. The patient has an IV of normal saline running at a rate of one drip every second (360mL/hour). Your transport time is two hours and you will be required to replace the bag of normal saline during the trip. When should you do this?
Correct
Correct!
Incorrect
Incorrect!
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Question 77 of 77
77. Question
Match each of the IV therapy complications with their definitions by dragging the answer down to the correct spot:
Sort elements
- IV fluid is flowing into the surrounding tissue instead of the vein, usually due to displacement of the IV or perforation of the vein. Identified by excessive swelling around the IV site.
- Fluid overload, usually caused by excessive or rapid fluid administration (i.e. a “runaway clamp”). This may result in pulmonary edema and shortness of breath.
- Inflammation of a vein, usually due to a clot forming.
- A piece of the IV catheter in the vein breaks off and is carried away in the blood stream. This usually occurs during the insertion of the IV catheter.
- Can be caused by an IV bag running dry, or by attaching a line that has not been purged of air.
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Interstitial IV
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Circulatory Overload
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Thrombophlebitis
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Catheter Embolism
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Air Embolism
Correct
Correct!
Incorrect
Incorrect!